That's usually close enough. 22/7 is pretty good too but 355/113 is better. Surprisingly the Bible got it within about 1/8" in 45' (with an allowable error of 2") three or four thousand years ago.
ALERT ALERT Fake news
Even my math is not that bad!
"within about 1/8" in 45' (with an allowable error of 2") "

Um that is 3.175mm in 13716mm (with an allowable error of 50.8mm) even in metric this does not compute.
Same as saying accurate to 0.023148% + or - 0.370370% does NOT either!;)
In either case according to your statement the real figure could of been in a range between 13662.025mm (0.99606481) and 13769.975mm (1.00393518) or am I overthinking things? ;):eek::D

TThis is all way out of my comfort zone though being an avowed atheist since early childhood.

Thank Technology for Wikipedia;):D and causing Facebook to fail for 24 hours - There is a god after all and I call 'it' HACK!;):D

Seems that there is far too little of pi in the Bible's version.;)
1 Kings 7:23 | Yikes! The number Pi in the Bible | A groovy commentary
 
ALERT ALERT Fake news
Even my math is not that bad!
"within about 1/8" in 45' (with an allowable error of 2") "

Um that is 3.175mm in 13716mm (with an allowable error of 50.8mm) even in metric this does not compute.
Same as saying accurate to 0.023148% + or - 0.370370% does NOT either!;)
In either case according to your statement the real figure could of been in a range between 13662.025mm (0.99606481) and 13769.975mm (1.00393518) or am I overthinking things? ;):eek::D

TThis is all way out of my comfort zone though being an avowed atheist since early childhood.

Thank Technology for Wikipedia;):D and causing Facebook to fail for 24 hours - There is a god after all and I call 'it' HACK!;):D

Seems that there is far too little of pi in the Bible's version.;)
1 Kings 7:23 | Yikes! The number Pi in the Bible | A groovy commentary
The description of the sea continues from verse 23 to verse 26. If you take the text out of context (as so many do) then you end up with a con.

Using imperial measurements instead of cubits (and the same will work if you want to go metric) we get:

Cubit = 18"
Handbreath = 4"

Diameter of bowl = 10 cubits = 15'
Circumference of sea = 30 cubits = 45'
Thickness of bowl = 1 hand breadth = 4" = 1/3'

Therefore the diameter of the sea is equal to the diameter of the bowl less 2 hand breadths which would be 14'4" or 14 1/3', which can also be expressed as 43/3'.

Circumference = PI x Diameter, or C=Pi x D
therefore Pi=C/D
Therefore Pi = 45 divided by 43/3
or Pi=45 x 3/43
Pi = 135/43
Pi = 3.1395348837

My calculator lists Pi as 3.1415926536. Therefore the difference is 0.0246932384. (Rounding off)

While this may not be quite accurate enough for the engineers among us, it is certainly within the parameter of half of the smallest measurement used in the description. I, for one, will maintain my faith in the Bible rather than wikipedia.
 
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The description of the sea continues from verse 23 to verse 26. If you take the text out of context (as so many do) then you end up with a con.

Using imperial measurements instead of cubits (and the same will work if you want to go metric) we get:

Cubit = 18"
Handbreath = 4"

Diameter of bowl = 10 cubits = 15'
Circumference of sea = 30 cubits = 45'
Thickness of bowl = 1 hand breadth = 4" = 1/3'

Therefore the diameter of the sea is equal to the diameter of the bowl less 2 hand breadths which would be 14'4" or 14 1/3', which can also be expressed as 43/3'.

Circumference = PI x Diameter, or C=Pi x D
therefore Pi=C/D
Therefore Pi = 45 divided by 43/3
or Pi=45 x 3/43
Pi = 135/43
Pi = 3.1395348837

My calculator lists Pi as 3.1415926536. Therefore the difference is 0.0246932384. (Rounding off)

While this may not be quite accurate enough for the engineers among us, it is certainly within the parameter of half of the smallest measurement used in the description. I, for one, will maintain my faith in the Bible rather than wikipedia.


I would have hoped the bible would have given an accurate estimation given Pi was first estimated around 1000 - 1500 years before the bible is widely accepted as being authored!
 
I would have hoped the bible would have given an accurate estimation given Pi was first estimated around 1000 - 1500 years before the bible is widely accepted as being authored!
I am not sure what you consider to be "before the bible is widely accepted as being authored!" but Moses started writing it about 1500BC and the last books were written in the first century AD.

However, according to the website Exploratorium, A Brief History of Pi (π) | Exploratorium we find:
The ancient Babylonians worked it out to 3.125
The ancient Egyptians worked it out to 3.1605

Much later Archimedes worked it out to between 22/7 and 227/71
In the 5th century AD Zu Chongzhi worked it out to 355/113.

The ancient Babylonians and Egyptian are the closest in time to ancient Israel, and I still contend that the Bible is accurate and does not equate Pi as 3 as claimed by its detractors.
 
I am not sure what you consider to be "before the bible is widely accepted as being authored!" but Moses started writing it about 1500BC and the last books were written in the first century AD.

However, according to the website Exploratorium, A Brief History of Pi (π) | Exploratorium we find:
The ancient Babylonians worked it out to 3.125
The ancient Egyptians worked it out to 3.1605

Much later Archimedes worked it out to between 22/7 and 227/71
In the 5th century AD Zu Chongzhi worked it out to 355/113.

The ancient Babylonians and Egyptian are the closest in time to ancient Israel, and I still contend that the Bible is accurate and does not equate Pi as 3 as claimed by its detractors.

Im not aware of any references to pi in the bible. I have studied biomedical and psychological research stats and given the rudimentary measuring scales/techniques available 1 2 3 or 4 thousand years ago I'd be happy to arrive anywhere near 3 as the constant so I'm not sure why anyone would consider that a reason for detraction!

It can logically be argued that given pi is infinitesimal it can't be valid. In the logical sense if you can continuously halve the distance (every measure of distance can be halved) between two points, in theory, they can never touch ergo a circle would never be complete if pi is indeed infinitesimal
 
given the rudimentary measuring scales/techniques available 1 2 3 or 4 thousand years ago I'd be happy to arrive anywhere near 3 as the constant
Probably a good thing we left all that stuff to the Persians, Mayans and Zoroastrians then. And Euclid at 400BC was no slouch.

More and more we discover that whilst "modern" man has arguably evolved rapidly in terms of technology: mentally he may well be regressing. We rely on answers, rather than questions!.
 
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